The first SNAP was conducted on December 20, 2020, between 11:00 and 12:00 hrs. The test was conducted smoothly. The paper had the same interface as that of CAT. There were no surprises, except that the paper was extremely easy; hence, the cutoffs would probably be higher than expected. Lets deep-dive into the overall level of difficulty, cut-offs and analysis of the sections given by the experts at Career Launcher, IMS and T.IM.E.
| Section |
Number of Questions |
Review - IMS |
Review - Career Launcher |
Review - TIME |
|
|
Level of Difficulty |
Good Attempts |
Level of Difficulty |
Good Attempts |
Good Score |
| General English |
15 |
Easy |
12-13 |
Easy-Moderate |
10+ |
12 |
| Analytical & Logical Reasoning |
25 |
Easy-Moderate |
19-20 |
Easy |
16+ |
17 (+/-) 2 |
| Quantitative, Data Interpretation & Data Sufficiency |
20 |
Easy |
16-17 |
Easy |
15+ |
16 (+/-) 1 |
Overall Analysis And Cut-Offs
Analysis By IMS:
Based on the feedback received from students and IMS experts who took the test we estimate the scores required to secure a call for the next round of admissions by general category students to SIBM-Pune, SCMHRD, SIIB and SIBM-Bengaluru and corresponding percentiles as follows:
| Raw Score for SNAP Dec 2020 Test |
Percentile |
| 45-47 |
98 percentile ( for SIBM -Pune) |
| 43-45 |
97 percentile ( for SCMHRD) |
| 37-39 |
90 percentile ( for SIIB & SIBM Bengaluru) |
Analysis By Career Launcher:
The paper was easy; and similar to that of last year, in terms of the level of difficulty.
SIBM Pune: SIBM Pune has the highest competition and the cutoff for the flagship MBA of the institute would be easily 38+ marks (out of the 60).
SCMHRD: The next-best institute under the Symbiosis umbrella; and the cutoff could be 35 to 36 marks to get a 97 percentile.
Other top Symbiosis institutes would require scores of around 30+
The lowest-ranked institute (and course) also may require 17 to 20+ marks for admission in the General Category.
This is the first time SNAP can be written twice but there may not be any big advantage writing the exam more than once.
Analysis By T.I.M.E:
An overall score of 41-42 should be a good score for SIBM Pune and 38-40 for SCMHRD.
Section-wise Analysis
General English
| Type of Questions |
No. of Questions |
| Fill in the Blanks |
3 |
| Grammar |
1 |
| Identify - Parts of Speech |
1 |
| Figures of Speech |
1 |
| Synonyms |
1 |
| FIB - Prepositions |
2 |
| Idioms and Phrases |
2 |
| Collective Noun |
1 |
| Compound Word |
1 |
| Para Jumble (Find the Start) |
1 |
| Spelling |
1 |
| Total |
15 |
Analysis By Career Launcher:
The (pleasant) surprise element, for many students, was that there was no Reading Comprehension. This made the paper easy in terms of the time required to solve the 15 questions. Many students could have completed this section in less than 10 minutes; thus having enough time for the Quant and Reasoning sections. Grammar questions were slightly off-beat, as is expected from SNAP. For instance, there were questions on finding out what a collective noun is, or a compound word is in a sentence. Other usual questions of SNAP, such as, Idioms and Phrases, Spelling Corrections, Parts of Speech, or Figures of Speech were also asked.
The level of difficulty of this section was easy-to-moderate. We say, moderate because many students might not be comfortable with the level of the grammar questions!
A good score In General English would be 10+ marks.
Analysis By IMS:
General English section of SNAP-2020 was easy and surprisingly had a big change from last year’s SNAP. There were no RC questions. All questions were on Verbal Ability.
The VARC section was dominated by vocabulary questions with around 6 to 7 FITB (Fill in the Blanks), a couple of idiom usage questions, 1 question each on synonyms and compound words. 2 grammar-based questions were asked where one had to identify the part of speech. There was also 1 question on identifying the correct figure of speech as well as a parajumble question where one had to identify the first statement in the correct sequence. No RC questions were asked which made it less time consuming to attempt. There were no TITA questions.
A good strategy would be to attempt around 12 - 13 questions in 12-14 minutes with 85+% accuracy.
Analytical & Logical Reasoning
Analytical & Logical Reasoning
|
| Type of Questions |
No. of Questions |
| Coding-Decoding |
3 |
| Blood Relations |
1 |
| Number Series |
3 |
| Letter Series |
1 |
| Input/Output |
2 |
| Clocks |
2 |
| Calendars |
2 |
| Syllogisms |
1 |
| Analogies |
1 |
| Circular Arrangements |
2 |
Verbal Reasoning
|
| Type of Questions |
No. of Questions |
| Course of Action |
2 |
| Assumptions |
1 |
| Action |
2 |
| General Misc. Reasoning |
2 |
| Total |
25 |
Analysis By Career Launcher:
here were absolutely no surprises in this section too. The questions were extremely easy. The usual questions on Coding-Decoding, Letter Series, Blood Relations, Input/Out ( very easy), Calendars, Clocks, Syllogism, Analogies, Circular Arrangements (2 questions, not continuous, but of the same set), and Verbal Reasoning. There were two miscellaneous reasoning questions, as well.
The section was extremely easy, and almost every question could have been attempted. Given that there were a few not-so-easy number series questions - and also miscellaneous reasoning questions - the attempts could be between 22 to 25 questions.
A good score in this section would be 16+ (for the top Symbi school).
Analysis By IMS:
Out of the 25 questions in this section, 6 questions were on Verbal Reasoning and the remaining 19 were on Non-Verbal Reasoning.
The six questions on Verbal Reasoning were on expected lines - 1 question on syllogism, 2 questions on course of action, 1 on statement - assumption, 1 on statement - conclusion and 1 analogy question. All were fairly easy to attempt.
The questions on Non-Verbal Reasoning were dominated by Series questions (total 5), followed by Puzzles type questions (total 3). There were only two set based questions, having two questions each. Many students reported that the two questions in the sets were not consecutively placed. Continuing the tradition of SNAP, this section had one question that required some understanding of Physics in order to be able to answer the question.
Most of the questions in the section were on easy to medium in terms of level of difficulty. Only one question in series completion required students to calculate the square of a four-digit number. Moreover, the options in that question could not be easily eliminated.
A good strategy would be to attempt around 19-20 questions in 24-26 minutes with 85% + accuracy.
Quantitative, Data Interpretation & Data Sufficiency
| Type of Questions |
No. of Questions |
| Ratios |
1 |
| Percentages, P&L |
3 |
| Averages |
2 |
| T&W |
1 |
| TSD |
2 |
| Number Series |
1 |
| Number Theory |
2 |
| Logs |
1 |
| Mensuration |
1 |
| Coordinate Geometry |
1 |
| P&C |
2 |
| Probability |
2 |
| Data Interpretation |
1 |
| Total |
20 |
Analysis By Career Launcher:
This section was of LOD 1. Almost all the questions were easy and straightforward. The maximum number of questions (9 out of 20) was from Arithmetic. As usual, the SNAP paper had 2 P&C and 2 Probability (though easy) questions. There was only one Data Interpretation question; and while the section name had Data Sufficiency, there was no question from that topic.
A good attempt would be almost all of the 20, but clearly 15+ attempts can be expected, with a 12+ score.
Analysis By IMS:
Out of the 20 questions in this section, 19 questions were on Mathematics and there was one singleton question on Data Interpretation. There was no question on Data Sufficiency. Overall this section was very easy. Many questions in the section could be solved orally.
The questions on Mathematics were dominated by Arithmetic (8 questions), followed by Modern Mathematics (5 questions). There was one question on completing the series in this section, which might as well have been included in the Analytical and Logical Reasoning section.
A good strategy would be to attempt around 16 to 17 questions in 20-22 minutes with 85% + accuracy.